Is it possible

[tradeunionsupporter]

Is it possible that Classless society went to Class society is because of Greed by a small Elite does Marxism say anything about this theory ?

[tradeunionsupporter]

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classless_society

[Nox]

I think so.

As soon as people began being exploited for wealth, there has been an ever-expanding gap between rich and poor.

(We're talking waaaaaaay back)

[Azula]

It is always possible.

It is unlikely after the final victory of Communism.

[tradeunionsupporter]

Does it even matter why tribal society without classes changed into class based society all that matters to me is that it did ?

[Tommy4ever]

Obviously its hard to find out concrete facts about events that occured in pre-history. But here is the general idea of the three most important things that led to the emergeance of class society from primitive communist ones:

Religion - the religious priests obviously held a powerful grip over these people and used it to exert their authority and make themselves into a privileged class.

Conflict - these communities needed people to protect them (it was a very violent time) and this in turn led to the growth of a warrior class which was one of the main sources of secular power.

Administration - small scale bureacracies with power over the distribution of food etc. A strong source of power.

Privileged groups grew out of the priests, warriors and bureacrats and emerged into a ruling class. The bronze age is the period when the many surrendered power to the few and saw the growth of extremely rigid class societies with absolute monarchs - as in Egypt and the city states of the Middle East.

This is one theory I have heard about how class societies emerged - I am sure there are others.

[ColonelCossack]

man, that's your basic historical materialism.

society went to limited class societies a few thousand years ago because primitive communism could no longer support the growing population- there was probably also an element of fetishism, religion, etc.

But i don't think they knew that that was what was happening. I think that throughout primitive communist society there were only enough commodities to go around equally (i order to prevent the rest of the "tribe" from dying of starvation), and when there was enough to be a surplus it was possible for an overclass to be created.

[tradeunionsupporter]

Do we know why classless society went to class based society could it be Greed thanks ?

[hatzel]

society went to limited class societies a few thousand years ago because primitive communism could no longer support the growing population- there was probably also an element of fetishism, religion, etc.

But i don't think they knew that that was what was happening. I think that throughout primitive communist society there were only enough commodities to go around equally (i order to prevent the rest of the "tribe" from dying of starvation), and when there was enough to be a surplus it was possible for an overclass to be created.

You seem to have written these two paragraphs as if they constitute the development of one coherent idea, as if one lead onto the other. There doesn't appear to be any clear rejection of the first paragraph, of the suggestion that scarcity caused the transition into class society, before arguing that it was, in fact, surplus which cause this transition. That is to say, the latter paragraph is the complete opposite of the former, so it's surely nonsensical to argue both positions simultaneously...?

[blake 3:17]

Do we know why classless society went to class based society could it be Greed thanks ?

It is safe to say that greed was important in this.