My question why did tribal society without classes change into class based society di

[tradeunionsupporter]

My question why did tribal society without classes change into class based society did Karl Marx have an answer was it the technology ?

[o well this is ok I guess]

Bro chill
You've already got a thread for this.

[RGacky3]

I don't know if this is really universal, for example, central europe changed really after the Roman Empire, it was the rememants of that. Then you have some civilizations, such as Egypt or Sumer, which we only know about as a class society.

I don't think there is a straight answer for this perse.

[ComradeMan]

My question why did tribal society without classes change into class based society did Karl Marx have an answer was it the technology ?

As far as I was aware the change from hunter-gatherer nomadic society to more localised agrarian societies saw the development of the concept of "property" in terms of land, land ownership and the development of what we could call class-based societies.

[Rooster]

I'm pretty sure the German Ideology talks this. I'll go have a coffee then I'll have a quick look.

I can't find it. I'm possibly thinking of the wrong book. Anyway, I'll try to give my ideas on it.

I'm assuming you're talking about pre-historical tribal society. I'm sure that as soon as a surplus could have been made, and there's evidence that this was possible back in the stone age with the sick and injured being looked after, labour could have been divided. So you could now have people working on producing things that weren't necessary to their immediate needs such as extra tools or even shamanistic practice. Increasing population and technology probably meant that someone did not need to work at all, become the tribal leader through some process, either because of their physical prowess or some other reason. This division of labour could be expanded by capturing slaves and so on.

[bcbm]

there are a number of theories, most likely pressure from a changing climate on expanding populations

[tradeunionsupporter]

Does it even matter why tribal society without classes changed into class based society all that matters to me is that it did ?

[Luc]

Do you mean primitive-Communism becoming Slavery?

I think the above mentioned is right, and possibly the introduction of having people as property.

[Revolution starts with U]

surplus foodstuffs created from the development of agriculture fostered the development of a "managerial" class. And as we all know, power seeks hegemony; ergo the managerial class (typically made of the priestly class, backed by the muscle of the warrior class) needed to develop rigid systems of control.

[tradeunionsupporter]

Could one reason be as to why tribal society changed into class based society is because of greed by a small elite ?

[Lucretia]

This is a very good question, and whoever said that Marx gives the answer in the German Ideology is basically correct. The short answer is that humans are both naturally cooperative and self-interested to varying degrees. Which of these manifests itself in the structure of a society or group depends upon the social context -- namely the development of the forces of production and the concomitant development of the division of labor.

Class society first developed with advances in the division of labor, when the interests of greater productivity (and survival) for the clan/group/tribe as a whole coincided with a degree of centralized administrative/political control over the production process. Those who assumed this control, usually people with the greatest prestige in the group, began to form a class society. It was contradictory in that it really did aid the development of the productive forces, but was a step backward in terms of social relations because it created a theretofore non-existent antagonism.

Chris Harman has a much more elaborate discussion of this in his excellent article "Engels and the Origins of Human Society" (http://www.marxists.de/science/harmeng/)

[Book O'Dead]

Like someone else said above: The invention and generalization of agriculture, animal husbandry, etc. eventually gave rise to land demarcation between tribes, clans and families which led to the formal institution of private property. Simultaneously, people became divided, first between men and women and later between property owner and non-owner irrespective of sex.

I think it would be fair to say that the first great division of humanity into classes as a result of emerging private property took place along gender lines.
All this probably took place in a span of time of about 100,000 years before Antiquity but I could be wrong in that detail.