Tim Finnegan
18th July 2011, 16:12
In a discussion in another forum, the topic of the distribution of goods in a communist society came up. This stuff is far from my strongest point (I have a strong point? http://media.bigoo.ws/content/smile/miscellaneous/smile_280.gif), so I could use a bit of help hammering some sort of explanation into shape.
The question is posed in this format:
P: How does a person obtain needed goods?
A: Is the method of obtaining goods at all affected by the occupation of the person (i.e. the goods that they produce)?
i: If so, exactly how?
ii: If not, then how do people exit worthless occupations (i.e. artists who produce paintings nobody wants)?
B: Does this method have a limitation?
i: If so, how is the limitation determined?
ii: If not, then what's stopping people from obtaining an inordinate and unsustainable amount of goods?
C: Is the method of obtaining goods efficient?
D: Is the method of obtaining goods fair?
With an example for capitalist society being given (its validity is neither here nor there, it's just for illustration):
P: A person goes to a particular store and uses their money to purchase the goods. This money was obtained through performing their occupation.
P(A): Yes,
P(A)(i): the occupation of the person determines how much money they have, and thus the ability and limitation of purchasing goods.
P(A)(ii): This issue does not exist, since if an occupation is worthless, then (most of the time) the person will not obtain the money necessary to obtain needed goods.
P(B): Yes,
P(B)(i): the limitation is the sum of money a person receives from their occupation (presumably equivalent to the worth of their occupational production; see sections C and D)
P(B)(ii): This issue does not exist, since people don't have an infinite supply of money. People cannot get more TVs and computers than society is capable of producing (or the few first ones getting all of society's capacity, and the late showers getting nothing).
P(C): Presumably. How valuable a person's occupation is, usually directly contributes to the amount of money the person receives (which is used to obtain the fruits of others' occupations). As such, we have more or less the same input and output for a person in the system.
P(D): Presumably. Same as in section C, if a person's occupational production is worth a certain amount of money, then they will usually receive about that same amount of money in compensation. If they don't, then the reigning capitalistic idea of entrepreneurs stepping in to eliminate inefficiencies would save the day. An entrepreneur could make profit by compensating currently-under-compensated workers more than their current compensation, but less than their actual contribution. The end result would be equitable (or close thereto) compensation for labour.Now, my first instinct is to say either that communism, being a society in which distribution is based on need and not exchanged, simply can't be simplified like that, or that the form of distribution is something that would have to be figured out as the system is constructed, but both of these feels like a bit of a cop-out. Any ideas on how to reply?
The question is posed in this format:
P: How does a person obtain needed goods?
A: Is the method of obtaining goods at all affected by the occupation of the person (i.e. the goods that they produce)?
i: If so, exactly how?
ii: If not, then how do people exit worthless occupations (i.e. artists who produce paintings nobody wants)?
B: Does this method have a limitation?
i: If so, how is the limitation determined?
ii: If not, then what's stopping people from obtaining an inordinate and unsustainable amount of goods?
C: Is the method of obtaining goods efficient?
D: Is the method of obtaining goods fair?
With an example for capitalist society being given (its validity is neither here nor there, it's just for illustration):
P: A person goes to a particular store and uses their money to purchase the goods. This money was obtained through performing their occupation.
P(A): Yes,
P(A)(i): the occupation of the person determines how much money they have, and thus the ability and limitation of purchasing goods.
P(A)(ii): This issue does not exist, since if an occupation is worthless, then (most of the time) the person will not obtain the money necessary to obtain needed goods.
P(B): Yes,
P(B)(i): the limitation is the sum of money a person receives from their occupation (presumably equivalent to the worth of their occupational production; see sections C and D)
P(B)(ii): This issue does not exist, since people don't have an infinite supply of money. People cannot get more TVs and computers than society is capable of producing (or the few first ones getting all of society's capacity, and the late showers getting nothing).
P(C): Presumably. How valuable a person's occupation is, usually directly contributes to the amount of money the person receives (which is used to obtain the fruits of others' occupations). As such, we have more or less the same input and output for a person in the system.
P(D): Presumably. Same as in section C, if a person's occupational production is worth a certain amount of money, then they will usually receive about that same amount of money in compensation. If they don't, then the reigning capitalistic idea of entrepreneurs stepping in to eliminate inefficiencies would save the day. An entrepreneur could make profit by compensating currently-under-compensated workers more than their current compensation, but less than their actual contribution. The end result would be equitable (or close thereto) compensation for labour.Now, my first instinct is to say either that communism, being a society in which distribution is based on need and not exchanged, simply can't be simplified like that, or that the form of distribution is something that would have to be figured out as the system is constructed, but both of these feels like a bit of a cop-out. Any ideas on how to reply?