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Rafiq
16th June 2011, 00:39
Can someone explain wikipedia's claim that Iran's economy grew, living conditions with it, when the government privatized like a shit ton of the economy, from 80% state owned to 40%?

Thirsty Crow
16th June 2011, 00:41
Can someone explain wikipedia's claim that Iran's economy grew, living conditions with it, when the government privatized like a shit ton of the economy, from 80% state owned to 40%?
Why would that matter?
I'd be more interested to see what response was there from the organized working class.

Rafiq
16th June 2011, 00:43
The Iranian workers absolutely hate the reforms, from what I hear. Then again, the workers are not too fond of the regime to begin with.

My point is, is that I've heard a Reaganite use that in an argument before. I just need something to counter it.

Jose Gracchus
16th June 2011, 01:27
"Growth" for whom? Aggregated living standards are the easiest way to lie with statistics. Lets look at caloric intakes, access to education and health care, social mobility, and access to housing for industrial workers and the other lower strata.

Black Sheep
16th June 2011, 14:08
Without having any knowledge of iranian economy, if before privatization it was semi-medieval and huggely under-developed, privatization would concentrate production and increase productivity.

All countries that went through capitalism and concentration of capital marked an increase in living standards, due to the rise of productivity of labor (due to mechanization, scientific advances in production,automation, blah blah).