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Vogelman
3rd May 2011, 20:29
For several years now I consider myself a Marxist. From the beginning I was, and still am, very interested in the philosophical basis of Marxism i.e. Dialectical Materialism. When I recently discovered this forum I quickly discovered the @nti-dialectics sticky made by Rosa Lichtenstein.
It was one of the first times I found such an extensive text against dialectics, so I started reading.

However, I soon found some scientific arguments that aren't correct and wanted to reply to these. The arguments I want to reply to are more of a scientific character than a pure philosophical, so maybe the thread isn't entirely in the right place... I'll leave it to the moderators to judge about this. Let's get on to the serious business.

The first part will be about her "refutation" of the first of three dialectic laws, the law of a change of quantity at a certain stage resulting in a change of quality.




All dialecticians (i.e., the majority who accept these 'Laws') impose them on nature . What little evidence dialecticians supply to substantiate these 'Laws' is not only woefully insufficient, it is highly contentious -- to say the least.

Anyone who has studied and practiced genuine science will know the lengths to which researchers have to go to alter even minor aspects of current theory, let alone justify major changes in the way we view nature.

In stark contrast, and without exception, dialecticians offer a few paragraphs of trite (and over-used) clichés to support their claims. Hence, all we find are hackneyed references to things like boiling water, balding heads, plants 'negating' seeds, Mamelukes fighting the French, a character from Molière suddenly discovering that he speaks prose, and the like, all constantly retailed, year in, year out.

From such banalities, dialecticians suddenly derive universal laws, applicable everywhere and at all times.

....

The First 'Law', the alleged change of quantity into quality, ignores the many cases in nature where change is not "nodal":

Quote:
"Hegel invented the nodal line of measure relations, in which small quantitative changes at a certain point give rise to a qualitative leap. The example is often given of water, which boils at 100oC at normal atmospheric pressure. As the temperature nears boiling point, the increase in heat does not immediately cause the water molecules to fly apart. Until it reaches boiling point, the water keeps its volume. It remains water, because of the attraction of the molecules for each other. However, the steady change in temperature has the effect of increasing the motion of the molecules. The volume between the atoms is gradually increased, to the point where the force of attraction is insufficient to hold the molecules together. At precisely 100oC, any increase in heat energy will cause the molecules to fly apart, producing steam." [Woods and Grant (1995), p.49.]

But, not everything in nature changes in this way; consider melting glass, metal, rock, butter and plastic. No nodal points anywhere in sight, here. Do Woods and Grant (do any other DM-theorists) consider these counter-examples? Are you kidding? In this part Rosa Liechtenstein claims that the laws of dialectics are imposed on nature and that most of evidence for these laws are over used "clichés". She reproduces one of these often used examples of water boiling by presenting us a quote from the book "Reason in Revolt" by Ted Grant and Alan Woods. (Which is a rather incorrect description of boiling actually)

She then states that in most cases there aren't even nodal points and gives some examples (Melting: Metal, rock, butter and plastic) which she claims are simply ignored by people who adhere dialectics. Well, let's see if there are any nodal points to find here.

First of all let us look at what a solid is. At a molecular level a solid is characterised by molecules that are bonded together by inter or intra molecular forces which causes the molecules to be very static compared to molecules in the gas or water phase. The only motion these molecules are able to make are oscillations. Because of the different kind of forces between the molecules and because of the different ways they can be orientated, there are different classes of solids: metals, various kinds of crystals, glasses,.... All these classes have there own distinct qualities and quantities.

Now let us return to water, this time in its solid form: ice. When we heat up ice the molecules in the crystal structure gain more energy and begin to oscillate more and more. At a certain point the heat added gives the individual water molecules enough energy to overcome the bonds between themselves and the other molecules (In this case hydrogen bonds) so they can now move freely around(or more scientifically: translate), in other words the solid became a liquid. Everyone knows that relatively pure water melts at 0 °C. Before this temperature we don't see any change, ice doesn't become more and more liquid, on the contrary it changes immediately.

This is the case for any more or less pure substance. It happens so sudden at a given temperature which is specific for every material, in the past the determination of the melting temperature was often used to identify a compound.(Today more easy and accurate methods are used) If the substance is dilutedthis melting point can lower or even not happen at all, we will than find an interval(mostly a couple of degrees) at which the substance melts. This is because of the fact that the different compounds in the substance start to at a different temperature instantly. Therefore this method is often used to see how pure a certain substance is.

Now lets continue and take a look at the examples that were given by Rosa. Let us start with metal. For some reason Rosa claims that metals don't melt like ice does, that it becomes gradually a liquid. First of all this shows she has little knowledge of science and confuses different phenomena.

Melting a metal is quite the same as melting ice, at a certain temperature the metal ions gains enough energy to escape from the crystal structure. What she probably confuses with the process of melting is the fact that metals can be bend and manipulated more easily at higher temperatures. The fact that metals are easier to deform at higher temperatures is a direct consequence of the nature of the metal bonding. In a metal the individual atom has released some of its outer shell electrons. These positive charged atoms are called ions and are organised in a crystal structure, around these ions the electrons they gave away move freely. One of the effects is that this kind of bond is extremely durable, but also can be bended because the space and orientation of the metal ions can change without breaking the bond.

If we heat up the metal the bonds become less strong and so we are able to change the place the ions more simply. However, this doesn't make the metal a liquid. The ions are still firmly on their place and if we don't exert any force will stay there.

Now lets look at glass. Glasses are class of solid on there own, they're characterised by an amorphous structure.(They aren't arranged in a crystal structure). Rosa confused in this case the same phenomena. This time the flexibility of the product to bending at higher temperatures is a consequence of the structure and not the type of bonding. A crystal would mostly brake if we tried to bend it, even at higher temperatures. The fact it is amorphous makes it possible for the molecules in the solid to change place when bend without necessarily breaking the bond. It's kind of analogue to the metal.

The rock and the butter are more difficult to explain. Rock seems to melt gradually, however this is not the case. Rock consists of a range of different kinds of crystals and the composition differs from rock to rock. The melting of a rock is difficult process. To put it most simple: different crystals melt at their own melting temperature. When a rock melts it is thus a mixture of solids and liquids.

Butter is a water in oil emulsion. In other words, very tiny bubbles of water which are enclosed by the milk proteins are spread through the solid oil. These bubbles are one of the reasons why butter is as easily spread if we exert force on it. However, this doesn't make it a liquid yet. If you put the butter in the pan and heat it you'll see the oil melt, the water boil away and the proteins will probably disintegrate because of the heat. Though a multitude of reactions happen, both chemical and physical, the melting itself stills happens nodal.

For plastics I cannot provide an answer, simply because this term is far to vague and covers a wide range of materials.

In all the above examples, we can clearly see that the quantitative addition of heat results in a qualitative sudden change: melting.

Let's continue to see what Rosa has to say:


And not every change in quality is produced by quantitative differences (contrary to what Engels said):

Quote:
"...the transformation of quantity into quality and vice versa. For our purpose, we could express this by saying that in nature, in a manner exactly fixed for each individual case, qualitative changes can only occur by the quantitative addition or subtraction of matter or motion (so-called energy)…. Hence it is impossible to alter the quality of a body without addition or subtraction of matter or motion, i.e. without quantitative alteration of the body concerned." [Engels (1954), p.63.]
There are in fact countless changes in quality that are not determined in this way. For example, there are certain molecules that have exactly the same material content and energy levels as one another, but are qualitatively dissimilar because of the different spatial arrangement of their constituent atoms. These are called 'Stereoisomers'.

So, here we have a change in quality produced by change in geometry, not quantity.
Here Rosa shows she even manages to confuse between on the one hand change and on the other difference. Not any sane dialectician would claim that things can't differ even though they have the same material and energetic properties. Rosa proves this in the quote above. However, the first law of dialectics is not about difference but about how things become something different, in other words: how the change.

For a certain sterioisomers to change in another one, we would still have to add energy to break bonds before the atoms of this molecule could get a different spacing. Ironically Rosa her own example turns against her.

I hope I was able to show in this post that Rosa Liechtenstein in order to show that the laws of dialectics were imposed upon nature, she made grave scientific errors. In the end it even turns out that the dialectic law was observed after all.

In her essays many more of these scientific errors can be found. I'm willing to post them and correct them if people are interested.

RedAnarchist
3rd May 2011, 20:36
Rosa was recently banned from the forum, but she does have a website if you want her to be able to respond to your post.

Vogelman
3rd May 2011, 20:45
Thanks for the heads up, I'll contact her soon.

Ostrinski
3rd May 2011, 20:52
Why was she banned?

RedAnarchist
3rd May 2011, 21:00
Why was she banned?

The BA - Board Administration - voted to ban her after complaints of flaming and harassment.

Kotze
3rd May 2011, 23:09
Now lets continue and take a look at the examples that were given by Rosa. Let us start with metal. For some reason Rosa claims that metals don't melt like ice does, that it becomes gradually a liquid. First of all this shows she has little knowledge of science and confuses different phenomena.

Melting a metal is quite the same as melting ice, at a certain temperature the metal ions gains enough energy to escape from the crystal structure. What she probably confuses with the process of melting is the fact that metals can be bend and manipulated more easily at higher temperatures.So metal is exactly like ice, except for the part where it goes from hard and rigid to something that isn't hard and rigid without getting liquid, eeeh...

I don't really see how what you write here contradicts the gist of her argument that lots of processes are not nodal. What is the gist of your argument, is it that pure things change nodally, and that gradual change is a result of things being mixed? But things being mixed is not a theoretical construct. Peanut butter exists in reality, so universal dialectics is wrong :P

My favourite nodal change "example" from dialectical thinkers collected by Rosa was about numbers and goes like this: You write down numbers, 1-2-3-4-5 and so on, 6-7-8-9 and BAM! Now you need 2 digits, a little change in quantity totally changed the quality, told you about nodal changes, duuude. All around us, in reality. Yeah, great example, except that where these "nodal changes" happen when counting depends on which base you use.

I guess we can all agree that some things change in a very sudden fashion. If this applies to some aspects of society, why isn't that reason enough to use theories of how sudden change in society happens (not limiting ourselves to dialectics here)? Nobody says Keynes was wrong because of quantum redshift WHICH HE NEVER MENTIONED IN HIS "GENERAL" THEORY OMG or whatever, why does Marx or some strained interpretation of him have the duty to explain the whole universe?

Rowan Duffy
4th May 2011, 01:41
This is, I think, relevant: More Is Different. P. W. Anderson (http://robotics.cs.tamu.edu/dshell/cs689/papers/anderson72more_is_different.pdf)

Sam_b
4th May 2011, 02:14
The BA - Board Administration - voted to ban her after complaints of flaming and harassment.

Firstly, i've never heard Admins being known as 'The BA', and secondly, that's not true. In fact it was moderators and admins that voted on it, and the former implies that it was an admin-only decision when it wasn't.

Sorry for pedantry and derail.

Ostrinski
4th May 2011, 02:19
The BA - Board Administration - voted to ban her after complaints of flaming and harassment.
What is her site? I found her posts insightful.

Rooster
4th May 2011, 02:29
What is her site? I found her posts insightful.

I found it on the wiki page for dialectical materialism.

ar734
4th May 2011, 04:34
She was also accused of....gasp!!...
Dishonest Argument!!!!!!!

ar734
4th May 2011, 04:44
Here is a mundane example of quantity into quality: Practice makes perfect. Have you ever noticed, esp. in sports, when you practice day after day, and it seems you are making no progress, then suddenly you become aware that you have achieved a new level of expertise? Quantity into quality.

An example that Engels noted: By adding quantities of heat to water there is a point at which the water changes its quality from water to gas.

I think this is a really good example of dialectics: matter/anti-matter.

Vogelman
4th May 2011, 13:25
So metal is exactly like ice, except for the part where it goes from hard and rigid to something that isn't hard and rigid without getting liquid, eeeh...


It's not because the metal becomes more easy to manipulate, it is more like a liquid. Saying metal, or any substance that is, starts as a solid and smoothly becomes a liquid, is just plain nonsense. If it would have been like that, scientist would have wanted to find an equation to determine how the solid/liquid character of a given substance would evolve when we heat it. Also, phase diagrams would have to reveal the partial liquid, partial solid character of a substance. However no such equation exists and I still need to see the first phase diagram that tells me the phase transition isn't a nodal happening.




I don't really see how what you write here contradicts the gist of her argument that lots of processes are not nodal. What is the gist of your argument, is it that pure things change nodally, and that gradual change is a result of things being mixed? But things being mixed is not a theoretical construct. Peanut butter exists in reality, so universal dialectics is wrong :P


the gist of my argument is not that substances of mixed compounds don't have nodal phase transitions, in fact they do. However this can be multiple nodal changes because of the fact the different compounds that consist of it all change in a nodal. It's not because we don't perceive these nodal changes directly that they aren't there. It's analogue with quantum mechanics, we don't perceive directly that energy, velocity,... and so on are quantized, however we do know this is the case due to many experiments.

I will not state that law of quantity into quality is an absolute one but I'm convinced it's a very useful concept that has an application in a lot of situations. The most weak point of this law is probably the fact it doesn't mention any quantitative leaps.

The gist of my argument was actually to show how weak the examples of Rosa Lichtenstein actually were on a scientific level. It's actually simply nonsense to compare the melting of pure water and butter to show quantity into quality isn't doesn't happen. These are two quite qualitative different things. If she'd analysed the process of butter melting she would have had to agree there are several nodal points. The fact is that Rosa may be well acquainted with logic and philosophy but she actually doesn't know much about science.

Luís Henrique
4th May 2011, 18:36
So metal is exactly like ice, except for the part where it goes from hard and rigid to something that isn't hard and rigid without getting liquid, eeeh...

"Solid" is not the same as "hard and rigid".


Peanut butter exists in reality, so universal dialectics is wrong :P

No. Peanut butter exists in reality, so all-encompassing generalities cannot explain everything. The point is "the concrete study of the concrete case", which evidently isn't the same as philosophical speculation - be it of the "dialectical" or of the "anti-dialectical" variety


My favourite nodal change "example" from dialectical thinkers collected by Rosa was about numbers and goes like this: You write down numbers, 1-2-3-4-5 and so on, 6-7-8-9 and BAM! Now you need 2 digits, a little change in quantity totally changed the quality, told you about nodal changes, duuude. All around us, in reality. Yeah, great example, except that where these "nodal changes" happen when counting depends on which base you use.

This example is evidently absurd, starting with the notion that things "change" when you count. So what?


I guess we can all agree that some things change in a very sudden fashion. If this applies to some aspects of society, why isn't that reason enough to use theories of how sudden change in society happens (not limiting ourselves to dialectics here)?

Again, that would need concrete analysis. Merely blathering that things change accordingly to some abstract scheme doesn't explain anything. Conversele, merely arguing that things don't change according to a particular abstract scheme tells us nothing about change - what we need are theories of change, which are necessarily different whether we are talking about social change, or biological change, or chemical change, etc.


Nobody says Keynes was wrong because of quantum redshift WHICH HE NEVER MENTIONED IN HIS "GENERAL" THEORY OMG or whatever, why does Marx or some strained interpretation of him have the duty to explain the whole universe?

Indeed. Why would then loose our time trying to explain the whole universe, or trying to falsify a particular explanation of the universe, when what we should do is to explain the subject that directly interests us - social change - and the method we use to study it, which is necessarily different from the method people use to study "natural" processes?

Luís Henrique

Book O'Dead
4th May 2011, 20:52
For several years now I consider myself a Marxist. From the beginning I was, and still am, very interested in the philosophical basis of Marxism i.e. Dialectical Materialism.(bla-bla)

I haven't read all the follow-ups to this post so it may already have been pointed out to you that the "philosophical basis" of Marxism is Historical Materialism, not the crypto-mystical Dialectical Materialism.

RedAnarchist
4th May 2011, 21:10
Firstly, i've never heard Admins being known as 'The BA', and secondly, that's not true. In fact it was moderators and admins that voted on it, and the former implies that it was an admin-only decision when it wasn't.

Sorry for pedantry and derail.

I was referring to the admins as the BA, I was referring to the admins and moderators as the BA.

Hit The North
4th May 2011, 22:47
I haven't read all the follow-ups to this post so it may already have been pointed out to you that the "philosophical basis" of Marxism is Historical Materialism, not the crypto-mystical Dialectical Materialism.

I agree except that historical materialism isn't a philosophy.

L.A.P.
4th May 2011, 22:53
Now that I'm starting to finally get dialectical materialism/dialectics I have a question on the dialectical view on the theory of evolution. Do proponents of dialectics and dialectical materialism reject the gradualist view of evolution but instead support punctuated equilibrium? Because gradualism as a model of evolution always made more sense to me.

blake 3:17
5th May 2011, 02:49
Do proponents of dialectics and dialectical materialism reject the gradualist view of evolution but instead support punctuated equilibrium? Because gradualism as a model of evolution always made more sense to me.

Please don't consider the bunch here as the final say on biology. I've a sympathy with punctuated equilibrium via SJ Gould and his book Wonderful Life, which is a wonderful read. Gould was clearly influenced by Lukacs, the most earliest and prominent heavily dialectical Marxist thinker to reject the dialectics of Nature.

pranabjyoti
5th May 2011, 08:11
So far, once I was engaged in a debate with Rosa (regarding Dialectic Materialism of course), in those replies to my arguments, Rosa commented that laws of conservation of Mass, Energy and 2nd law of thermodynamics were "metaphysical" in nature and "many scientists doubted that".
So far, with my little understanding of DM, I just want to say that it's nothing more than just a compass to show the right direction. While anti-DM people are trying to prove that it's NOT some kind of magic stick.

S.Artesian
5th May 2011, 10:10
Except... of course for the fact that Marx never wrote any single sentence concerning "dialectical materialism," that he never endorsed any "philosophical" basis for his analysis of capitalism, that what Marx extracted from Hegel was not a philosophy, but the "rational kernel," i.e. Marx recognized in Hegel an alienated activity which represented a material history-- that material history being the appropriation of nature-- the creation of the social "being"-- and so Marx transposes the subject and object of critique from "consciousness" to the conditions of social labor.

Marx's analysis derives its great strength from this specificity-- its enduring "death-grapple" so to speak with capitalism and NOT from any theory of nature, knowledge, or make-up of the universe.

pranabjyoti
5th May 2011, 16:04
Except... of course for the fact that Marx never wrote any single sentence concerning "dialectical materialism," that he never endorsed any "philosophical" basis for his analysis of capitalism, that what Marx extracted from Hegel was not a philosophy, but the "rational kernel," i.e. Marx recognized in Hegel an alienated activity which represented a material history-- that material history being the appropriation of nature-- the creation of the social "being"-- and so Marx transposes the subject and object of critique from "consciousness" to the conditions of social labor.

Marx's analysis derives its great strength from this specificity-- its enduring "death-grapple" so to speak with capitalism and NOT from any theory of nature, knowledge, or make-up of the universe.
This same arguments was used by Mikhailovsky and against which, Lenin wrote Who were The Friends of the people and how they oppose social democrats. Kindly read the arguments by Lenin in that book and hope that will enlighten you.

S.Artesian
5th May 2011, 20:34
You're on my ignore list, so if your comments are addressed to me........well I'm not interested. I bet you're going to say that Engels, Plekhanov, and Lenin all argued differently to my assertions. BFD. I don't think I've ever encountered more bullshit posturing about Marx's "philosophical roots" than in Lenin's musings on materialism and his "Philosophical Notebooks."

Makes me "anti-Leninist"? OMG, how will the wolf survive?

Coggeh
5th May 2011, 21:02
In this part Rosa Liechtenstein claims that the laws of dialectics are imposed on nature and that most of evidence for these laws are over used "clichés". She reproduces one of these often used examples of water boiling by presenting us a quote from the book "Reason in Revolt" by Ted Grant and Alan Woods. (Which is a rather incorrect description of boiling actually)
Just to point out something, if you ever want to read about marxism in relation to science this is the last book you should read, its utterly terrible and anti scientific to the core. Woods doesn't even know how water boils in the first place.

edit: i see you pointed that out. Anyway point still stands. Stay away from this garbage.

pranabjyoti
6th May 2011, 01:57
You're on my ignore list, so if your comments are addressed to me........well I'm not interested. I bet you're going to say that Engels, Plekhanov, and Lenin all argued differently to my assertions. BFD. I don't think I've ever encountered more bullshit posturing about Marx's "philosophical roots" than in Lenin's musings on materialism and his "Philosophical Notebooks."

Makes me "anti-Leninist"? OMG, how will the wolf survive?
Expected from eccentrics like you.

MarxSchmarx
6th May 2011, 06:36
OP, your argument of solids turning into liquids doesn't show that "quantitative " change becomes "qualitative change", or that these changes are different. Solids melting describe a nonlinearity, to be sure, but the phenomena is accounted for by modern science without any reference to dialectical materialism. The burden of proof still remains on the dialectical materialist to show that melting solids somehow says something more grandiose about the nature of existence than the idea that there are nonlinear phenomena.

Rosa probably could have expressed that a lot more acerbically but oh well.

Kuppo Shakur
6th May 2011, 07:04
Hey everyone: Stop trying to make sense of all of this dialectical bullshit.
There, I just saved you all a bunch of time.

Hit The North
6th May 2011, 18:09
This same arguments was used by Mikhailovsky and against which, Lenin wrote Who were The Friends of the people and how they oppose social democrats. Kindly read the arguments by Lenin in that book and hope that will enlighten you.

In fact, Lenin takes a similar position to S.Artesian in order to counter Mikhailovsky's assertions that Marxism is based on a-priori, metaphysical and abstract formulae.

So I'd take your own advice.

pranabjyoti
7th May 2011, 02:57
In fact, Lenin takes a similar position to S.Artesian in order to counter Mikhailovsky's assertions that Marxism is based on a-priori, metaphysical and abstract formulae.

So I'd take your own advice.
Don't distort the facts. What you are trying to do is to impose your own view on Lenin. I have the copy of the book in my own language and that's totally different from what you are saying. In that book, Lenin in contrary asked In which of his writings Marx hadn't proved dialectic materialism?

Broletariat
7th May 2011, 16:09
http://anti-dialectics.co.uk/Weak_Attempt.htm

There is Rosa's reply.

Hit The North
7th May 2011, 16:52
Don't distort the facts.

It's a fine thing for you to begin by calling me a liar!


What you are trying to do is to impose your own view on Lenin.As opposed to your unclouded, objective view from Mount Olympus, you dissembler?


I have the copy of the book in my own language and that's totally different from what you are saying.Well, if you want me to kick your ass with quotations from the book, I will. But for those comrades reading this who want to form their own opinion on what Lenin has to say to Mr. Mikhailovsky, the relevant article can be found here (http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1894/friends/03.htm#v01zz99h-191-GUESS).

In the post by S.Artesian (who ignores you for good reason), to which you counterpose Lenin's text, he argues:


Originally Posted by S.Artesian http://www.revleft.com/vb/revleft/buttons/viewpost.gif (http://www.revleft.com/vb/showthread.php?p=2101998#post2101998)
[Marx] never endorsed any "philosophical" basis for his analysis of capitalism... Marx transposes the subject and object of critique from "consciousness" to the conditions of social labor.

Marx's analysis derives its great strength from this specificity-- its enduring "death-grapple" so to speak with capitalism and NOT from any theory of nature, knowledge, or make-up of the universe.
From Lenin's text, Lenin accuses Mikhailovsky of mistakenly imputing Marxism with such a "philosophical" or abstract set of laws:


In a word, we have before us that most banal and vulgar accusation against the Marxists long employed by all who have nothing substantial to bring against their views. “The Marxists profess the immutability of an abstract historical scheme!!”

But this is a downright lie and invention!
He goes on:


No Marxist has ever regarded Marx’s theory as some universally compulsory philosophical scheme of history, as anything more than an explanation of a particular social-economic formation. Only Mr. Mikhailovsky, the subjective philosopher, has managed to display such a lack of understanding of Marx as to attribute to him a universal philosophical theory; and in reply to this, he received from Marx the quite explicit explanation that he was knocking at the wrong door.And, finally, Lenin insists:

It would seem difficult to speak more clearly: the Marxists unreservedly borrow from Marx’s theory only its in valuable methods, without which an elucidation of social relations is impossible, and, consequently, they see the criterion of their judgement of these relations not in abstract schemes and suchlike nonsense at all, but in its fidelity and conformity to reality.
In that book, Lenin in contrary asked In which of his writings Marx hadn't proved dialectic materialism?

I'd like a link or citation to where Lenin asks this question. But even so, isn't he merely insisting on what S.Artesian and all good Marxists insist upon: that our theoretical conclusion emerge from our scientific study - to "prove the matter" - not to merely rely upon abstract and dogmatic laws derived from pure speculation?

The truth is that in your haste to do battle with S.Artesian, you have performed the double calamity of ending up misrepresenting the views of Lenin and making yourself look like an ass into the bargain.

Sam_b
7th May 2011, 18:12
I was referring to the admins as the BA, I was referring to the admins and moderators as the BA.

Exactly.


the former implies that it was an admin-only decision when it wasn't.

ChrisK
10th May 2011, 09:22
I was browsing Rosa's website. Apparently she is keeping up with forum and wrote this (http://anti-dialectics.co.uk/Weak_Attempt.htm).

Broletariat
10th May 2011, 13:08
I was browsing Rosa's website. Apparently she is keeping up with forum and wrote this (http://anti-dialectics.co.uk/Weak_Attempt.htm).

I already posted this on her behalf :/

ar734
12th May 2011, 17:13
Except... of course for the fact that Marx never wrote any single sentence concerning "dialectical materialism," that he never endorsed any "philosophical" basis for his analysis of capitalism.

What about this sentence:

"The capitalist mode of appropriation, the result of the capitalist mode of production, produces capitalist private property. This is the first negation of individual private property, as founded on the labour of the proprietor. But capitalist production begets, with the inexorability of a law of Nature, its own negation. It is the negation of negation. This does not re-establish private property for the producer, but gives him individual property based on the acquisition of the capitalist era: i.e., on cooperation and the possession in common of the land and of the means of production." (from Chapter 32, Capital, Vol I, emphasis added.)

S.Artesian
12th May 2011, 17:33
What about this sentence:

"The capitalist mode of appropriation, the result of the capitalist mode of production, produces capitalist private property. This is the first negation of individual private property, as founded on the labour of the proprietor. But capitalist production begets, with the inexorability of a law of Nature, its own negation. It is the negation of negation. This does not re-establish private property for the producer, but gives him individual property based on the acquisition of the capitalist era: i.e., on cooperation and the possession in common of the land and of the means of production." (from Chapter 32, Capital, Vol I, emphasis added.)


I did not say that Marx did not deploy a dialectic in his critique of capital. In fact I have about 1000 posts arguing with Rosa that in fact Marx did deploy a dialectic.

That analysis, and the weapon of the dialectic in that analysis, is not the same thing as the ideology of "dialectical materialism" which declares that dialectics are a natural "law" of the physical universe.

Marx isn't talking about nature, he is talking about the appropriation of nature, which is performed only through the mediation of labor, which is, a social organization.

Philosopher Jay
13th May 2011, 22:20
Is there a place to read about the reasons for her banning?

Wait. I think Community Central is the place to find this information. Sorry for the interruption.