PoliticalNightmare
24th January 2011, 22:09
Marx explains Aristotle's view:
In the first place, he clearly enunciates that the money form of commodities is only the further development of the simple form of value – i.e., of the expression of the value of one commodity in some other commodity taken at random; for he says:
5 beds = 1 house – (clinai pente anti oiciaς)
is not to be distinguished from
5 beds = so much money. – (clinai pente anti ... oson ai pente clinai)
I don't speak Ancient Greek, so anyone care to translate? Cheers.
In the first place, he clearly enunciates that the money form of commodities is only the further development of the simple form of value – i.e., of the expression of the value of one commodity in some other commodity taken at random; for he says:
5 beds = 1 house – (clinai pente anti oiciaς)
is not to be distinguished from
5 beds = so much money. – (clinai pente anti ... oson ai pente clinai)
I don't speak Ancient Greek, so anyone care to translate? Cheers.