know2b
7th October 2010, 21:49
Marx says:
Since 1848 capitalist production has developed rapidly in Germany, and at the present time it is in the full bloom of speculation and swindling. But fate is still unpropitious to our professional economists. At the time when they were able to deal with Political Economy in a straightforward fashion, modern economic conditions did not actually exist in Germany. And as soon as these conditions did come into existence, they did so under circumstances that no longer allowed of their being really and impartially investigated within the bounds of the bourgeois horizon. In so far as Political Economy remains within that horizon, in so far, i.e., as the capitalist regime is looked upon as the absolutely final form of social production, instead of as a passing historical phase of its evolution, Political Economy can remain a science only so long as the class struggle is latent or manifests itself only in isolated and sporadic phenomena.
See here: http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/p3.htm
The underlined part confuses me. It seems to imply that this very book would have suddenly become unscientific if a revolution had started while Marx worked on it.
Does the scientific nature of political economy depend on the intensity of class struggle?
Since 1848 capitalist production has developed rapidly in Germany, and at the present time it is in the full bloom of speculation and swindling. But fate is still unpropitious to our professional economists. At the time when they were able to deal with Political Economy in a straightforward fashion, modern economic conditions did not actually exist in Germany. And as soon as these conditions did come into existence, they did so under circumstances that no longer allowed of their being really and impartially investigated within the bounds of the bourgeois horizon. In so far as Political Economy remains within that horizon, in so far, i.e., as the capitalist regime is looked upon as the absolutely final form of social production, instead of as a passing historical phase of its evolution, Political Economy can remain a science only so long as the class struggle is latent or manifests itself only in isolated and sporadic phenomena.
See here: http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/p3.htm
The underlined part confuses me. It seems to imply that this very book would have suddenly become unscientific if a revolution had started while Marx worked on it.
Does the scientific nature of political economy depend on the intensity of class struggle?