Attempt to calculate surplus value extracted

[The Idler]

Has there ever been any attempt to calculate the surplus value extracted from workers over all-time or within any specific period or place?

[fa2991]

Talk about impossible. If you were unusually attentive, you could probably calculate the surplus value for a week for one employee at one small workplace. Whole time periods, though? That would be a nightmare to have to figure out.

[FSL]

Has there ever been any attempt to calculate the surplus value extracted from workers over all-time or within any specific period or place?

Actually, these things are done all the time in most countries. The shares of each activity in the national income are estimated by the countrie's statistical agencies. Sometimes you'll see shares for labor (wages), enterprises (profit), interest and rent (the latter 3 are all forms of surplus-value). Most often you'll see them split the national income in a labor share and a capital share, aka value and surplus-value.

As a "general fact" labor's share is usually around 60% or so in an economy with the rest being capital's share. This of course depends on the country and the year.
It might increase or decrease, for example it would increase if there are string unions.



http://ec.europa.eu/economy_finance/publications/publication15147_en.pdf
This is from the European Commision. According to it, the labor's share in income is decreasing in the past years in Europe (so surplus value is increasing).

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/National_Income_and_Product_Accounts
This shows how the GDP in US is spread. A part of it goes to employees, the rest is made up by profits, rent and interest, or simply capital.



Should be mentioned that when the value of the product is "divided between the various factors of production", it is assumed that the machines in the factory, the land in the field or the money in the bank account are actually producing. By themselves. Which is quite obsurd.

There are some problems in calculating these shares of course. For example in economies with many self-employed people, you 'd need to include parts of their income in both labor's and capital's share. A question is how much in each. Also, shareholders participating in "boards of directors" that have no real use (they appoint the managers, essentially they just nod as long as the profits keep on coming), receiving part of the surplus-value as a salary etc.

[The Idler]

I assume its more than has ever been transferred from productive forces to so-called unproductive forces via welfare.

[Adil3tr]

Couldn't you take the part of the GNP that is the working class and subtract the share of the national income that wages take up?