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fa2991
31st July 2010, 09:15
Why exactly is it correct, again?

Zanthorus
31st July 2010, 13:57
Because in all societies it is a natural law that the society will have to allocate certain portions of the labour-time at it's disposal to certain spheres of activity in order to satisfy it's needs. Exchange-value is merely the form of manifestation which this natural necessity takes in a society of private, autonomous production units carrying out their production independenly of each other. Since it constitutes a relation between various kinds of social labour it is actually a tautology to say that labour is the only source of exchange-value.

Or at least such is my own understanding.