Buffalo Souljah
7th June 2010, 05:07
I know very littel about these fields, but what I have read from Wikipedia so far has been very confusing, to say the least.
Take this, from the Sociolinguistics article:
In Chomskian (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chomskian) linguistics, a distinction is drawn between I-language (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/I-language) (internal language) and E-language (http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=E-language&action=edit&redlink=1) (external language). In this context, internal language applies to the study of syntax and semantics in language on the abstract level; as mentally represented knowledge in a native speaker. External language applies to language in social contexts, i.e. behavioral habits shared by a community. Internal language analyses operate on the assumption that all native speakers of a language are quite homogeneous in how they process and perceive language.[citation needed (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:Citation_needed)] External language fields, such as sociolinguistics, attempt to explain why this is in fact not the case. Many sociolinguists reject the distinction between I- and E-language on the grounds that it is based on a mentalist view of language. On this view, grammar is first and foremost an interactional (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interactional_linguistics) (social) phenomenon (e.g. Elinor Ochs, Emanuel Schegloff (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emanuel_Schegloff), Sandra Thompson).
Are these valid distinctions-- Internal/external language? This seems to me to be the classic argument between idealism and skepticism, which always responds to the former with something along the lines of infinite regress or the problem of induction. Does this degrade the quality of linguistics' claim to be a "true" science (and not a "social" science)?
I have other questions, but I feel we should let the bull out of his pen so as to avoid suspense.
Take this, from the Sociolinguistics article:
In Chomskian (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chomskian) linguistics, a distinction is drawn between I-language (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/I-language) (internal language) and E-language (http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=E-language&action=edit&redlink=1) (external language). In this context, internal language applies to the study of syntax and semantics in language on the abstract level; as mentally represented knowledge in a native speaker. External language applies to language in social contexts, i.e. behavioral habits shared by a community. Internal language analyses operate on the assumption that all native speakers of a language are quite homogeneous in how they process and perceive language.[citation needed (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wikipedia:Citation_needed)] External language fields, such as sociolinguistics, attempt to explain why this is in fact not the case. Many sociolinguists reject the distinction between I- and E-language on the grounds that it is based on a mentalist view of language. On this view, grammar is first and foremost an interactional (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Interactional_linguistics) (social) phenomenon (e.g. Elinor Ochs, Emanuel Schegloff (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Emanuel_Schegloff), Sandra Thompson).
Are these valid distinctions-- Internal/external language? This seems to me to be the classic argument between idealism and skepticism, which always responds to the former with something along the lines of infinite regress or the problem of induction. Does this degrade the quality of linguistics' claim to be a "true" science (and not a "social" science)?
I have other questions, but I feel we should let the bull out of his pen so as to avoid suspense.