¿Que?
24th March 2010, 07:49
Here is the quote:
With the division of labour, in which all these contradictions are implicit, and which in its turn is based on the natural division of labour in the family and the separation of society into individual families opposed to one another, is given simultaneously the distribution, and indeed the unequal distribution, both quantitative and qualitative, of labour and its products, hence property…Division of labour and private property are, moreover, identical expressions: in the one the same thing is affirmed with reference to activity as is affirmed in the other with reference to the product of the activity.
Here is the source:
http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1845/german-ideology/ch01a.htm#a4
Here is my conclusion:
In a communist society in which private property is assumed to be abolished, then so would be abolished the division of labor. Really?! Is this realistic? Or am I reading this all wrong? Help me out comrades.
With the division of labour, in which all these contradictions are implicit, and which in its turn is based on the natural division of labour in the family and the separation of society into individual families opposed to one another, is given simultaneously the distribution, and indeed the unequal distribution, both quantitative and qualitative, of labour and its products, hence property…Division of labour and private property are, moreover, identical expressions: in the one the same thing is affirmed with reference to activity as is affirmed in the other with reference to the product of the activity.
Here is the source:
http://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1845/german-ideology/ch01a.htm#a4
Here is my conclusion:
In a communist society in which private property is assumed to be abolished, then so would be abolished the division of labor. Really?! Is this realistic? Or am I reading this all wrong? Help me out comrades.