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BakuninFan
24th December 2009, 17:19
For a project, I was assigned this text, written by Ludwig von Mises. My assignment is to provide a counter argument. Being a Marxist, and this being a very anti-Marxist article, could I please have some suggestions as to how to respond to this wretched article?

The article goes as following:

QUOTE In the status society there prevails, on the one hand, a solidarity of interests of all members of the same caste and, on the other hand, an irreconcilable conflict of interests between the members of different castes. All slaves, for instance, are united in having a stake in the abolition of slavery while their masters are opposed. All members of the European nobility were opposed to the abolition of their tax exemption, from which the Third Estate people expected a relaxation of their own burden. But no such conflicts are present in a society in which all citizens are equal before the law. No logical objection can be advanced against distinguishing various classes among the members of such a society; any classification is logically permissible, however arbitrarily the mark of distinction may be chosen. But it is nonsensical to classify the members of a capitalistic society according to their position in the framework of the social division of labor and then to identify these "classes" with the castes of a status society. It is precisely this that the Marxian doctrine of the irreconcilable struggle of classes does.



QUOTE The "classes" that Marx distinguishes within a capitalistic society have a continually fluctuating membership. Class affiliation under capitalism is not a hereditary quality. It is assigned to each individual by a daily repeated plebiscite, as it were, of all the people. The buying public, the consumers, by their buying and abstention from buying, determine who should own and run the plants, who should work in the factories and mines, who should play the parts in the theater performances, and who should write the newspaper articles. They do it in a similar way in which they determine in their capacity as voters who should act as president, governor, or judge. In order to get rich in a capitalistic society and to preserve one's once acquired wealth one must satisfy the wishes of the public. Those who have acquired wealth as well as their heirs must try to keep it by defending their assets against the competition of already established firms and of ambitious newcomers. In the unhampered market economy, not sabotaged by concessions and exemptions accorded to powerful pressure groups, there are no privileges, no protection of vested interests, no barriers preventing anybody from striving after any prize. Access to the Marxian-designated classes is free to everybody. The members of each class compete with one another. They are not united by a common class interest and not opposed to the members of other classes by being allied either in the defense of a common privilege, which those wronged by it want to see abolished, or in the attempt to abolish a legal disability which those deriving advantage from it want to preserve.

The champions of modern political freedom and laissez faire asserted: If the old laws establishing status privileges and disabilities are abolished and no new practices of the same character?such as subsidies, discriminatory taxation, indulgence granted to non-governmental agencies like unions to use coercion and intimidation?are introduced, there is equality of all citizens under the law. Nobody is hampered in his aspirations and ambitions by any legal obstacles. Everybody is free to compete for any social position or function for which his personal abilities qualify him.

But Marx saw things in a different light. He maintained that capitalism did not abolish bondage and did not do away with the servitude of the working and toiling masses. It did not emancipate the common man. The people merely changed their masters. Formerly they were forced to drudge for the princes and aristocrats; now they are exploited by the bourgeoisie. The division of society into "social classes" is, in the eyes of Marx, sociologically and economically not different from its division into the castes of the status society. The bourgeois of the modern age is no less a predatory extortioner than were the noblemen and slaveholders of ages gone by.

But what characterizes the "social class" as such, and what entitles us to equate it with the castes of the status society? To this question Marx never gave an answer. All his books, pamphlets and writings turn around the concept of the social class and the essence of his political and economic program is the abolition of "social classes" and the establishment of what he styles a classless society. But he never told us what be had in mind when employing the term "social class" and what justifies ascribing to the division of society into "social classes" the same effects as its division into castes had.

Durruti's Ghost
24th December 2009, 17:35
Well, one objection that immediately comes to mind is that Mises evidently accepts the idea of irreconcilable difference in the interests of the slave class and the slaveholding class, while rejecting the same concept regarding the proletariat and the bourgeoisie. He does this on the grounds of the mobility that characterizes capitalist society; supposedly, the fact that "anyone" can be a member of the bourgeoisie or the proletariat disqualifies them from being social classes. However, it is not true that "anyone" can become a bourgeois, at least not at any time; one must first accumulate or borrow the capital necessary to do so. The exact same process--accumulating a sufficient amount of wealth--was used by slaves in slave societies to buy their own freedom and, in some cases, to become slaveholders themselves. Thus, by Mises' standards, slaves and owners were not social classes either because of the inherent "mobility" of individuals within the system. However--as Mises himself, being a classical liberal, acknowledges--slaves and owners are clearly separate classes with opposing interests, and because the fundamental difference between the relationships of slave-slaveowner and worker-capitalist that Mises claims exists is in fact nonexistent, workers and capitalists are also separate classes with opposing interests.


But he never told us what be had in mind when employing the term "social class" and what justifies ascribing to the division of society into "social classes" the same effects as its division into castes had.

I don't have a direct quote, but I've always heard that Marx's definition of "social class" involved a segment of society with a different relationship to the means of production and thus different interests than other segments of society (i.e., other "social classes").

mikelepore
25th December 2009, 01:59
If anyone tells me that they cannot "distinguish" between economically fortunate and unfortunate people, merely because both are "equal before the law", I believe I'm hearing a person who has no moral sensitivity. How could anyone be satified with the fact that a rich person and a poor person are equal before the law? They're not equal before the grocery store.

syndicat
25th December 2009, 02:07
Mises fails to consider the structural features of capitalist society that make workers unfree:

1. being forced to work for employers

2. subordinatiion to the decision-making authority of the bosses

3. control over decisions that affect workers and their communities are monopolized by dominant groups, owners and managers. this includes what is to be made, what technology to use, whether to close down the facility and move the jobs elsewhere, whether workers will be exposed to dangerous chemicals or other unsafe conditions at work.

4. over the past century under corporate capitalism, capitalist firms systematically work to reorg work in ways that deskill and control workers. this is to minimize labor expenses and maximize output thru intensification of pace of work. this has the effect of denying to workers the real opportunity to develop their skills and their potential, and denies to them the ability to defend their health, since intensified pace of work has adverse health effects on workers.

Mises might say the individual capitalist firm is "forced by competition" to do these things. And there is an element of truth to that. But it doesn't follow workers are not unfree, dominated, and thus a subordinate class.

He is also mistaken about class position not being hereditary. In fact the parents you had is best predictor of which class you'll end up in. Most people die in the class they are born in. There is some movement from the working class into the professions, small business ownership and management, but this doesn't alter the oppressive class power structure.