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GracchusBabeuf
14th July 2009, 02:15
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Dooga Aetrus Blackrazor
14th July 2009, 02:36
A lot of people have the means to invest in an education. They are simply unwilling to forgo luxuries in order to finance that education.

The amount of "real" poor in developed countries is quite low. Of course, what I would call "uneducated with opportunities" is what most poor people are. A cycle of poor education makes these people lack the basic knowledge necessary to take advantage of those opportunities.

I mean, look at it this way. Working one job and can't afford an education? Work two? Have a family? Why were you stupid enough to have children?

Really, the poor don't get the basic education necessary to take advantage of "equal opportunity." In terms of material resources, most people have the means to succeed. Strip the rich of their wealth, give them the situation of most poor people, and they will succeed again.

All success translates into some form of advantage whether biological or environmental. In some sense, you can always blame the poor for their situation. It's semantics. The fact is that we need give people the results rather than the opportunities. People deserve X not opportunity X.

black magick hustla
14th July 2009, 11:24
Actually, I have a book caled nationalism and culture by rudolf rocker that talks a little bit about this. i lent it to a friend so i cant look for it to quote directly but it speaks a little bit about how current hard work ethic might have sprung from protestant work ethic (the protestants also spearheaded capitalism - germany and the brits).

the last donut of the night
14th July 2009, 12:33
Actually, I have a book caled nationalism and culture by rudolf rocker that talks a little bit about this. i lent it to a friend so i cant look for it to quote directly but it speaks a little bit about how current hard work ethic might have sprung from protestant work ethic (the protestants also spearheaded capitalism - germany and the brits).


Maybe you can find the book on GoogleBooks. They have a shitload of them and it's free to use

ComradeOm
14th July 2009, 15:16
Engels' text is pretty good for his time, but has there been any advances been achieved in such studies after Engels' time? Has any recent study has been done as how law and morality developed over the course of time as mankind progressed from tribal to feudal to capitalist modes of production. Keep in mind I'm just looking for some introductory texts as I'm pretty new to studying history as suchGramsci sounds like your man. He's difficult to get into (both as a result of his philosophical background and the fragmented nature of his note) but as far as I'm concerned he's the bees knees when it comes to studying the role of morals, laws, and ideology in the modern state. Unfortunately there's very little of his work on MIA and I don't think he ever did a broad Origin of the Family type survey of history


A lot of people have the means to invest in an education. They are simply unwilling to forgo luxuries in order to finance that education.

...The fuck? "Poor people" (of whom there are apparently very few) are too lazy to send their children to college and stupid enough to dare to have families?

ComradeOm
14th July 2009, 19:31
I missed this earlier...


(the protestants also spearheaded capitalism - germany and the brits).I've always had a serious issue with the whole 'Protestant work ethic' thesis and largely because statements like the above are simply false. There is of course no question that the Industrial Revolution first surfaced in Britain in the late 18th C, or that Britain was for decades the leading industrial power. However Germany did not begin to industrialise en masse until the 1870s (roughly a century after Britain) with much of the so-called 'Protestant world' lagged similarly behind - the likes of Denmark, Sweden, the US did not begin to really industrialise until the 1850s onwards

Conversely the thesis also ignores the emergence of industrial societies in Catholic or Orthodox lands. Most notably of course this occurred in France (the second largest industrial power until the emergence of a united Germany), Turin, Austria, Wallonia, etc. Even the Catholic regions of Germany (particularly the Ruhr but also Bavaria) industrialised prior to Protestant Prussia. That's not even mentioning later industrialisation campaigns in Russia or the Far East

In short, the theory does not stand up to historical scrutiny. There are a host of socio-economic factors in industrialisation but religion does not appear to be one of them