The destruction of fixed capital.

[Psy]

How does the bourgeoisie explain capitalists making profits off cannabilizing the means of production? With the current crisis there is liquidation of the means of production were workers rip apart fixed capital so it could be auctioned off, yet how could the beourgise have any leg to stand on as doesn't destruction of fixed capital being profitable prove a crisis of over production exists? Wouldn't what is happening now cause a paradox for all those free-market theoriests, that the free-market is the only reliable indicator yet it is currently indicating over production that disproves the theory of free-markets being free from contradications?

[Code]

"the people need overproduction but they need money more!" or some shot like that.

[Psy]

"the people need overproduction but they need money more!" or some shot like that.
No since orthodox free-market theory states overproduction can't exist ever as there is no contradictions with capitalism (because they say so) thus all contradictions much exist external to capitalism. Yet when you have market forces pointing to the contraction to fixed capital I don't see what else you can interpret it as.